SWTony
06/23/2010, 16:17
I for one was very happy with the change to Dr. Strange and his use of brilliant tactician (I've always felt that this was the way it should have worked from the get go), but it still doesn't seem right (and this ruling feels though it contradicts this) when combined with this:
When affecting friendly characters with Brilliant Tactician, different combat values may be modified per each character affected.
Prerequisites: Outwit and Perplex
Choose a character.
Outwit does not need to show in the character's stat slot in order for the character to use this feat.
When the character uses Perplex, the character can affect every target friendly character that shares a team symbol or keyword with it. The character must have a clear line of fire to each target.
If Wand of Watoomb is used to target more than one character with Perplex (like with the feat Brilliant Tactician), a d6 would be rolled once and each target of Perplex would have a single combat value modified accordingly.
Once during your turn, give this character a free action to modify by +1 or –1 any combat value of a target character until the beginning of your next turn. A character using this power must be within 10 squares of the target and have a clear line of fire to the target, including itself. If a target character is damaged or healed, the effect of Perplex on that character ends immediately.
I quoted everything in question so we have all the info. I'm just wondering how it is justified that Dr. Strange only makes 1 roll and that roll applies to all those affected, but you can still choose different combat values to target different characters with. I have always felt that since BT used the word affect (as opposed to language that said can use perplex on eac) that when you use perplex you would select your target and their combat value to be modified and any other characters with in range would receive the same modifier as the effect of perplex would be to increase combat value x by y. The recent change to Wand of Watoom seems to suggest similar logic, so I'm curious, why the change to one, but not the other?
I'm just looking to generate a discussion here, because the logic doesn't seem right to me. Let this be known, I do know how this works and I accept this ruling, but I don't understand why it was ruled the way it was. I'm looking for a discussion of the why, not whether or not it is right (the ruling, of course, is the right answer).
When affecting friendly characters with Brilliant Tactician, different combat values may be modified per each character affected.
Prerequisites: Outwit and Perplex
Choose a character.
Outwit does not need to show in the character's stat slot in order for the character to use this feat.
When the character uses Perplex, the character can affect every target friendly character that shares a team symbol or keyword with it. The character must have a clear line of fire to each target.
If Wand of Watoomb is used to target more than one character with Perplex (like with the feat Brilliant Tactician), a d6 would be rolled once and each target of Perplex would have a single combat value modified accordingly.
Once during your turn, give this character a free action to modify by +1 or –1 any combat value of a target character until the beginning of your next turn. A character using this power must be within 10 squares of the target and have a clear line of fire to the target, including itself. If a target character is damaged or healed, the effect of Perplex on that character ends immediately.
I quoted everything in question so we have all the info. I'm just wondering how it is justified that Dr. Strange only makes 1 roll and that roll applies to all those affected, but you can still choose different combat values to target different characters with. I have always felt that since BT used the word affect (as opposed to language that said can use perplex on eac) that when you use perplex you would select your target and their combat value to be modified and any other characters with in range would receive the same modifier as the effect of perplex would be to increase combat value x by y. The recent change to Wand of Watoom seems to suggest similar logic, so I'm curious, why the change to one, but not the other?
I'm just looking to generate a discussion here, because the logic doesn't seem right to me. Let this be known, I do know how this works and I accept this ruling, but I don't understand why it was ruled the way it was. I'm looking for a discussion of the why, not whether or not it is right (the ruling, of course, is the right answer).